nightobeisance
nightobeisance
nightobeisance

Sure, and the law generally refrains from punitive damages where the employer has acted appropriately. As in this case: firing, apologizing, and comping the meal.

Wow. A bigot by association, even though they took the appropriate (and only rightful) action of immediately firing the employee. You paint with too broad a brush.

My father had burn scars over all of his face and skull, and he developed a thick skin; however, scaring children tore his heart out. Eventually, he got to the point where he'd simply ask the parents to sit with him and their child for a moment, then he'd introduce himself, explain simply what happened, and tell them

" EVERYONE has been bitten by a violent dog at some point in their life"

You're being mocked because the question is idiotic. It's really that simple.

There are also laws about control and misuse of cars, guns, and alcohol. Children are regularly victims of these misuses as well.

You might have acknowledged the tragedy before moving to your agenda. It shows you do have some compassion that way.

You're absolutely right that there are differences between chihuahuas and pit bulls.

It's a pretty common policy, and stiffing others is one of the most common reasons I've heard it used.

Merrily, we troll along...

I started reading this thread only because you were trying to explain your position to Contrarianist, and I was hoping they'd see reason. Rather sad that the result appears the same yet again. I admire your patience.

Hehe. If it's you, I just turn the meter way, way up. ;)-

Jonah hill: your first-to-mind word is "faggot?" Despite your years of support and activism, Dude, there is a problem here.

"Troll clowns claiming the UCSB murders were a result of white privilege."

I read it as "R ate P", dirty or sexy depending on your point of view - then read the article, said "huh," and felt guilty and ashamed. Ashamed that I, someone seemingly knowledgeable and caring firmly about justice and equality, would be ignorant of this. Guilty that I haven't done enough to be fully informed.

Well, I just swallowed my balls.

I'll probably hate myself for feeding you later, but how does perceived government manipulation of laws and public perception feed into the fact that your claim regarding the illegality of homosexuality in Germany was unique at the time of WWII?

The point, dear creature, is that most of the European countries had not legalized homosexual acts by WWII. Your claim regarding Germany is demonstrably false.

The point of my comment: you completely missed it. Well done, you.

European countries that had decriminalized homosexuality by 1950: