Firstly, I didn't write the novel. Secondly, I don't think anyone should take this fictional incestuous relationship and generalize to all women. That being said, the book passage started with Cersei saying "no" and ending with her saying "do me." How do you interpret that?

Again, I'm not a book reader, so I've only been privy to his show arc so far. It seems to me that it's been book readers that have been up in arms and all the show only people don't find this that incongruous to his character. Part of that was the rest of the episode. The Hound isn't a nice guy, Ygrette is still a…

I'm not a book reader, so I'm just reading the passages posted. It reads that he was already continuing to kiss and undress her over her protests he "didn't hear". If I read that wrong and she changed her mind before, I stand corrected.

I honestly would have had more of an issue if they had tried to film the book scene verbatim given the changes in situation grrm pointed out with Jamie coming back earlier.

It's odd to be accused of defending one of the most despicable characters in Cersei. It's odd to try to discuss degrees of rape. It's the whole no, no, no, yes argument. I think it's certainly not as clear as you make it out to be by only selecting the quotes after Jamie ignored her initial reactions to him. And…

The book: "“No,” she said weakly when his lips moved down her neck, “not here. The septons…” is that consent?