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Okay: You win. Keeping in mind that you have not cited a decision in a case similar to this one in which the defendant won, and that you don’t seem to have any plans to do so, I cannot find a decision in the type of case you describe in which the plaintiff won. Of course, as mentioned before, very few such cases make

I'm not sure. Several of the screenings haven't taken place yet. It frankly doesn't matter that much in terms of the legality, as advertising such restrictions is illegal under the ordinance and laws in question, and the ordinance and laws also allow for administrative bodies to take action to prevent discrimination

Maybe if I have time I'll work on it tomorrow. :)

As mentioned elsewhere, each theater within a theater complex counts as a public accommodation under the ordinance.

Fine. Say the restaurant owner says "I just can't deal with you gay people today. Go to one of any of the many other restaurants for a few days." You all good with that scenario since it's not a "complete ban?"

You're arguing that it's just a couple of screenings, and that that means it's okay to discriminate because there are plenty of other options in terms of screenings. In the example I posed, the owner of the restaurant is saying the same exact thing — that it's okay to discriminate because there are plenty of other

Actually, no, the law does not differentiate between an instance and a pattern in this case. Also, nearly everything else you just wrote about the law is incorrect.

Also, if you care to read the ordinance, you'll find that public accommodations include "an establishment physically located in the premises of an establishment described in this subsection or containing within the premises of which is physically located a covered establishment, and an establishment which holds itself

Do really not understand the meanings of the words "limit," "segregate," or "differentiate?"

Actually, ladies nights have been ruled illegal in multiple states under state discrimination laws. They can't be challenged very easily in federal court because gender is not a protected class in public accommodations under the Civil Rights Act.

From a legal standpoint it would probably be fine. Marital status is not an attribute that defines a protected class under the ordinance.

Care to elaborate, or are you just going to assert that it's idiotic without making any sort of argument?

Thanks. I appreciate it. Your posts have also made me think about it more. (Not that I hadn't thought about it a lot before, but more rarely hurts.)

No, I saw it. Just wanted to point out again that you are telling people about the law when seemingly having no interest in what the law actually is. :)

Well, we know that you do not give a shit abut telling people what the law is before even reading it… That much is clear.

Define what I mean? How about this, from one of their ads:

Again, you CLEARLY have not read the laws in question.

So if a restaurant says, "Hey, there are hundreds of restaurants in this city, and we don't like gay people, so if you're gay, just go to one of the other restaurants, because we sure as hell aren't serving you," you'd be fine with that? I mean, some people are fine with that, but whether one would be okay with that